Evan Blackmore wrote:Of course I don't think "reversed genitive" is a correct description of this phenomenon, but I'll use it for simplicity till the true explanation is uncovered.
Evan Blackmore wrote:The Greek version of the Psalms of Solomon contains a number of genitives in the reverse of the order found in the other surviving version (Syriac)--and usually also in the reverse of the order that would seem intuitively logical to a native English speaker. ...
1) Is there any one explanation that would fit all three of the above Greek genitives? It's easy to think of different explanations for the different instances--e.g. some of them could be epexegetical, others could be textual errors (cf. Rahlfs), etc. But since this phenomenon appears to be a recurring habit of the Greek translator, I'm wondering if it has some unitary explanation.
It has usually been argued that the Syriac of the Psalms of Solomon is a translation from the Greek, which is translated from Hebrew. In this view, the Syriac often tries to improve the phrases that are difficult in the Greek. So there's an explanation for why the Syriac matches what "would seem intuitively logical". But Trafton (1981) concluded that the Syriac is translated from Hebrew. In this case, the Syriac reflects the original Hebrew word order, and the Greek translator messed up with the genitives.
Evan Blackmore wrote:Thanks for your help, Scott.
Scott Lawson wrote:Evan Blackmore wrote:Thanks for your help, Scott.
Evan, I'm happy to help by asking dumb questions! I don't mind being wrong so that I can get it right!
Thank you for your graciousness,
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