Is the rendering of לָרֹכֵ֣ב בָּ֭עֲרָבוֹת as τῷ ἐπιβεβηκότι ἐπὶ δυσμῶν an interpretative rendering, or is it thought that there was a difference in the Hebrew manuscripts here?ᾄσατε τῷ θεῷ ψάλατε τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ ὁδοποιήσατε τῷ ἐπιβεβηκότι ἐπὶ δυσμῶν κύριος ὄνομα αὐτῷ καὶ ἀγαλλιᾶσθε ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ ταραχθήσονται ἀπὸ προσώπου αὐτοῦ
I guess that the historical context had moved on a lot since the original Psalm was written, but could it be that the reference to a storm god could still be noticed and would need to be " edited" out?