14:35 εἰ δέ τι μαθεῖν θέλουσιν, ἐν οἴκῳ τοὺς ἰδίους ἄνδρας ἐπερωτάτωσαν, αἰσχρὸν γάρ ἐστιν γυναικὶ λαλεῖν ἐν ἐκκλησίᾳ.
ἀφ' ὑμῶν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθεν, ἢ εἰς ὑμᾶς μόνους κατήντησεν
I've read in a couple of places the ἢ at the beginning of 1Cor14:36 can be taken to imply that the preceeding verse(s) are Paul quoting something that the Corinthians have previously said, and it shows his intent to "intensify the distinction between what [he] is saying and what he is opposing" (http://www.efccm.ca/pdfs/DoesPaulSilenceWomen.pdf
pp31). I've even read that it could be taken to have the strength of "Nonesense!" or something like that.
Is that the case, or is it stretching the possible uses of ἢ in that context? I've looked it up in BDAG, and as far as I can tell, it doesn't seem to particularly support this view.
Thanks very much