How would a person who was not conversant with Jewish usage of the Greek (and/or Jewish customs) actually understand passages using the word κοινός in the sense of "profane"?, like:Stephen Hughes wrote:There is sometimes call for a wider understanding, and sometimes the meaning within the NT corpus is sufficiently defined in itself (and different from usages outside the corpus) that looking outside would be almost counter-productive. (Not only where there are words with a high frequency, but also things like the σταμνος which means a wine vessel in other literature, but the pot for the mannah in ours. BDAG seems good for pointing cases like this out).
Perhaps it would be as, "I have never drawn from the state's or the public resources" = "I have always lived from my own means."Acts 10:14 (cf. Acts 11:8) wrote:Ὁ δὲ Πέτρος εἶπεν, Μηδαμῶς, κύριε· ὅτι οὐδέποτε ἔφαγον πᾶν κοινὸν ἢ ἀκάθαρτον.
For a verse like:
. If the Jewish usage / meaning were not familiar to a Greek speaker, I guess this would be difficult to make sense of, especially ἐκείνῳ κοινόν. I guess it would be interpreted out of its cultural context as, "A person the right to use (somebody else's private) property as if it were the common property of others, if that person deems it to be public property."Romans 14:14 wrote:Οἶδα καὶ πέπεισμαι ἐν κυρίῳ Ἰησοῦ, ὅτι οὐδὲν κοινὸν δι’ αὐτοῦ· εἰ μὴ τῷ λογιζομένῳ τι κοινὸν εἶναι, ἐκείνῳ κοινόν.
For another example of how "Biblical Greek" could differ from extra-Biblical Greek, you could look at this conversation from a few years ago: ὥρα πατέρος τε καὶ θυγατέρος.