Does the use of the perfect in these two verses indicate the time reference before which the sinning was done? Is the προ- talking about Paul's knowledge of the sin - those who were known to be sinning, or to those who themselves previously sinner, but who now longer do?
2 Corinthians 12:21 wrote:μὴ πάλιν ἐλθόντα με ταπεινώσει ὁ θεός μου πρὸς ὑμᾶς, καὶ πενθήσω πολλοὺς τῶν προημαρτηκότων, καὶ μὴ μετανοησάντων ἐπὶ τῇ ἀκαθαρσίᾳ καὶ πορνείᾳ καὶ ἀσελγείᾳ ᾗ ἔπραξαν.
2 Corinthians 13:2 wrote:Προείρηκα καὶ προλέγω, ὡς παρὼν τὸ δεύτερον, καὶ ἀπὼν νῦν γράφω τοῖς προημαρτηκόσιν καὶ τοῖς λοιποῖς πᾶσιν, ὅτι ἐὰν ἔλθω εἰς τὸ πάλιν, οὐ φείσομαι·