I’m interested in the meaning of καιρος εις ωρας at Daniel 11:35 in the OG. Especially how ωρας is being used. Some time ago I heard a lecture by GK Beale and he suggested (I hope I’m remembering correctly) that John when using the phrase “last hour” (1Jn 2:18) was referencing the book of Daniel in the LXX. I’ve only now taken time to look into this and I found Dan 11:35 as a possible candidate for John’s use of ωρα. I need help in deciphering the below phrase:
Daniel 11:35......εως καιρου συντελειας• ετι γαρ καιρος εις ωρας. 36 Και ποιησει κατα θελημα
The NETS translates the above with
Daniel 11:35.....until the time of consummation, for there is yet a time. ¶ “In that hour 36 the king will act according to his will
The NETS seems to break up the phrase differently from the way the text is punctuated. I know that punctuation is an editorial decision but what is the difficulty with construing εις ωρας with καιρος? How are we to understand καιρος εις ωρας?
Daniel 11:35
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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Re: Daniel 11:35
There is no major difficulty in construing εις ωρας with καιρος, as per the LES: 'an appointed time for a season'.
As Biblical Hebrew doesn't have a specific word that means 'hour', the use of the Greek ωρα to translate the Hebrew מועד would be therefore using ωρα as meaning 'time-period, season, age', to which I can certainly see a correspondence to ἐσχάτη ὥρα in 1 John 2:18 (='final age').
As Biblical Hebrew doesn't have a specific word that means 'hour', the use of the Greek ωρα to translate the Hebrew מועד would be therefore using ωρα as meaning 'time-period, season, age', to which I can certainly see a correspondence to ἐσχάτη ὥρα in 1 John 2:18 (='final age').
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Re: Daniel 11:35
I've been speaking modern Hebrew for so long that I wasn't aware that שָׁעָה šāʿā(h) didn't exist in biblical Hebrew! That's very interesting. It was an Aramaic word (see Daniel 3:6, 15; 4:30 and 5:5, in which it appears as either שַׁעֲתָה šaʿăṯā(h) and שַׁעֲתָא šaʿăṯā(ʾ)) that was apparently incorporated into Hebrew only after the Babylonian exile. It is possible that it existed in Hebrew even in biblical times but since it doesn't appear in the biblical corpus, that would be speculation. As far as we know, there was no biblical Hebrew word for "hour."S Walch wrote: ↑October 23rd, 2017, 4:07 pm There is no major difficulty in construing εις ωρας with καιρος, as per the LES: 'an appointed time for a season'.
As Biblical Hebrew doesn't have a specific word that means 'hour', the use of the Greek ωρα to translate the Hebrew מועד would be therefore using ωρα as meaning 'time-period, season, age', to which I can certainly see a correspondence to ἐσχάτη ὥρα in 1 John 2:18 (='final age').
Even מִשְׁמֶ֫רֶת mišméreṯ is not used in the Bible as a "watch" in the sense of a division of time ("the first watch").
You learn something new every day!
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
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