Scott Lawson wrote:In my reading today I came across εισιν seemingly used as a past tense at Acts 4:13 where it says: "Θεωρουντες δε την του Πετρου παρρησιαν και Ιαωνου, και καταλαβομενοι οτι άνθρωποι αγράμματοι εισιν και ιδιωται, εθευμαζον, επιγινωσκον τε αυτούς ότι συν τω Ιησου ήσαν,..."
Is this a candidate for a stative HP?
Well, εἰσίν is certainly stative, but, no, it's an ordinary present tense in indirect discourse. Though English requires a backshift of the tense of the verb, Greek uses the present for time incident to the main verb, just as if it were direct discourse.
Scott Lawson wrote:Can εχω at times be stative? I note a number of times that it appears in the present tense with a past tense meaning. For example John 5:6: "τουτον ιδων ο Ιησους κατακειμενον, και γνους οτι πολυν ηδη χρονον εχει, λεγει αυτω Θελεις υγιης γενεσθαι;"
Same deal here. ἔχει is indeed stative, but again this indirect discourse and Greek does not backshift the verb tense. Note also the use of a present with πολὺν ... χρόνον in an "extended now" construction, for which English uses the present perfect tense.
Scott Lawson wrote:Perhaps the above example is better categorized as a Present of Past Action, but does that category imply that the verb be an activity (action) rather than a state?
No, I don't think that's necessary. The ordinary rule of not backshifting in indirect discourse suffices for these examples.
Scott Lawson wrote:Thanks in advance for answering my questions and my apologies if my questions detract from the discussion.
Not a problem.