Matt 2:18 ὅτι οὐκ εἰσίν ... historical present?

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Re: Matt 2:18 ὅτι οὐκ εἰσίν ... historical present?

Postby Stephen Carlson » October 24th, 2012, 8:11 am

Alan Patterson wrote:Shall we continue to beat these two dead horses?


I'm not sure how helpful that would be, but let me give one last try, though I have to admit that I'm at a loss with respect to your explanations. They are conclusory, giving me your conclusions but not the reasons for them. I don't know what a "vanilla present" is and your saying so does not make it so. If anything present is "vanilla" it would be the present ἐστίν in the direct statement of John the Baptist.

So let's break this down at little, with three questions, focusing on what you think the DC is for each of these verbs:

1. What is the DC for the aorist εἶπεν in Matt 3:15?

2. What is the DC for the present ἂφίησιν in Matt 3:15?

3. What is the DC for the aorist ἀνέβη in Matt 3:16?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D. (Duke)
Post-Doctoral Fellow, Faculty of Theology, Uppsala
Stephen Carlson
 
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