Roy Fredrick wrote:I find a certain man in Mat 18:23 is that correct? or is it "a man"?
Διὰ τοῦτο ὡμοιώθη ἡ βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν ἀνθρώπῳ βασιλεῖ ὃς ἠθέλησεν συνᾶραι λόγον μετὰ τῶν δούλων αὐτοῦ·
And is ὡμοιώθη aor.pass.inf.?
ὡμοιώθη is aorist passive indicative, third person singular. For such questions, Perseus is helpful. For example, http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/mor ... h&la=greek
On the basis of your past posts, I get the impression that you favour word-for-word translations, in which case I would not think adding "certain" to "man" would be appropriate.
However, as you spend more time here, you will probably find that this forum tends to promote understanding the text on its own, by which I mean without translating it into English. Many of the most active participants here are highly competent, able to think in Greek without needing to "English" the text. You may find a better reception if you asked questions about how to understand the text in Greek, rather than how to translate it.
For example, in this case, you might ask if there is anything in the Greek text that suggests a specific person is in mind, or something that indicates a hypothetical story is being told (two of the functions of "certain" in English). Or you might ask why ἀνθρώπῳ would be included, since βασιλεῖ by itself would have sufficed.
I hope this also helps explain some of the reactions you've been receiving.
Ken (also one of the moderators)
Ken M. Penner
St. Francis Xavier University