Romans 9:5

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Justin Cofer
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Romans 9:5

Post by Justin Cofer » November 23rd, 2012, 6:53 pm

As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?

Thanks

timothy_p_mcmahon
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Re: Romans 9:5

Post by timothy_p_mcmahon » November 23rd, 2012, 10:19 pm

It's the predicate.

Evan Blackmore
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Re: Romans 9:5

Post by Evan Blackmore » November 23rd, 2012, 11:37 pm

Justin Cofer wrote:Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
The old 1885 RV offered no less than four alternate translations of this clause:

"... flesh, who is over all, God blessed for ever."

"... flesh. He who is God over all be/is blessed for ever."

"... flesh. He who is over all is God, blessed for ever."

"... flesh, who is over all. God be/is blessed for ever."

The first was placed in the text, but each of the other three must have had powerful committee advocates, for all three of them to get into the margin.

You'll find an extended discussion of the options, running for several pages of small print, in Sanday and Headlam.

Of more recent commentaries known to me, the fullest discussion is in Cranfield's ICC, vol. 2, pp. 464-70.

David Lim
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Re: Romans 9:5

Post by David Lim » November 24th, 2012, 1:25 am

Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
The reading you choose will depend on your interpretation. Besides the ones that Evan gives, there is even a fifth quite distinct possibility:
"... flesh. The God who is over all [be] blessed for ever, amen."
δαυιδ λιμ

Stephen Carlson
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Re: Romans 9:5

Post by Stephen Carlson » November 24th, 2012, 8:42 am

Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
As Cranfield's commentary points out (cited in this thread), it's basically a punctuation issue and the identification of the syntactic function depends on the punctuation.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia

Justin Cofer
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Joined: October 20th, 2012, 12:25 pm

Re: Romans 9:5

Post by Justin Cofer » November 24th, 2012, 6:14 pm

thanks all

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