[B-Greek] Sabbaton

Bryant J. Williams III bjwvmw at com-pair.net
Thu Jun 12 13:20:58 EDT 2008


Dear Jonathan,

Ken, George, et al, have given very good examples of the use of SABBATON.

>From a time perspective, the beginning of the Jewish Sabbath began at Sundown on
Friday. If PRWTH SABBATOU meant "first hour of the Sabbath," then Jesus did not
rise on the "third day." The third day from Friday would be Sunday, the "first
day of the week" which is also called Lord's Day (EN THi KURIAKHi hHMERAi) in
Rev. 1:9.

So at this point, it appears that he would have to prove that PRWTH SABBATOU and
its other uses are legitimate, and does not violate clear testimony from other
passages (I Corinthians 15:3-4).

I will refrain from going further as it would be better to reply OFFLIST since
it would it would violate list guidelines.

En Xristwi,

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Jonathan Bailey" <baileyjn at hotmail.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>; <brian_d_fink at hotmail.com>
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2008 7:44 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Sabbaton


Dear List,

Well, I finally ended up getting Bibleworks and BAGD in the mail and was
trucking along without need of help but I have gotten into a conversation with
this guy who believes that some sort of conspiracy has caused us to violate
God's desire and change the day we worship from Saturday to Sunday. Our
conversations make heavy use of the Greek and I have come to an impasse that I
cannot get out of with the tools I have here.

He basically thinks that sa,bbaton should always be translated as sabbath and
never week. So for him, mia/j sabba,twn should always be translated one of the
sabbaths instead of first day of the week. This is just an example. I am aware
that there are several variations of case and number surrounding this term. I
believe he also believes that prw,th| sabba,tou should be translated 'first hour
of the sabbath' or something. He basically rests his arguments on the fact that
the implied hHMERA can also be an implied WRA, and that there is no
justification for the inconsistencies in MIA and PRWTH and that there is no use
of SABBATON as week in the LXX or in the secular literature. He claims that the
word 'week' does not occur in the NT and if it did, it would be hEBDOMAS like it
is everywhere else. He would not accept testimony of other ancient translations
based on their lateness, though I do not know enough Latin or Syriac or any
other ancient verson to use it to convince him of anything.

So my question for you guys is: why do we translate SABBATON as week in the NT?
And also, can any of you put together a tight argument for why we translate
SABBATON as week in the NT based on the language?

Thanks.

Have a good evening.

Regards,

Jon


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