[B-Greek] 1Jn 5:15 - EAN + OIDAMEN

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 30 10:48:33 EDT 2008


After reading this BDAG entry, I wondered: isn't this saying we don't know what this usage means? I'm not assuming a clear distinction with every use, but I find this comment in BDAG worrisome. Are we suppose to stop there or are we suppose to keep searching for a possible variant with this usage?

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


--- On Mon, 6/30/08, Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com> wrote:

> From: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1Jn 5:15 - EAN + OIDAMEN
> To: "Vasile Stancu" <stancu at mail.dnttm.ro>
> Cc: "'B-Greek B-Greek'" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Date: Monday, June 30, 2008, 3:46 AM
> On Jun 29, 2008, at 9:46 PM, Vasile Stancu wrote:
> 
> > ἐὰν οἴδαμεν EAN OIDAMEN (1Jn 5:15)
> >
> >
> >
> > I would have expected that EAN be followed by a
> Subjunctive form.  
> > How to explain that EAN is used here in conjunction
> with a Present/ 
> > Perfect form, i.e. OIDAMEN?
> 
> See BDAG s.v. EAN, 1.b. for use with indicative, β for use
> with the  
> present tense, including OIDAMEN (which is a present in
> usage). One  
> gets the impression that the distinction between EAN and EI
> became  
> fuzzy in some Koine usage.
> 
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
> 
> 
> 
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