Re: errors

From: Rod Decker (rdecker@inf.net)
Date: Fri Dec 01 1995 - 08:45:38 EST


> Is the Greek New Testament inerrant, grammatically speaking? What evidence
>is there, if any, of grammatical error?
> richard arthur, Merrimack NH lisatia@aol.com

How do you define "grammatical error"? I think your question reflects a
very prescriptive approach to language and doesn't take into account the
fact that there were not (to my knowledge) grammatical "rules" in koine as
we have in English today by which to make such a judgment. To be inerrant,
there must be a standard against which to judge. There was common usage in
koine, no doubt, but the variations within that category--to say nothing of
the fuzzy edges--make "inerrant" an inappropriate category.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Rodney J. Decker Calvary Theological Seminary
Asst. Prof./NT 15800 Calvary Rd.
rdecker@inf.net Kansas City, Missouri 64147
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