Re: Messengers bearing Greeks

From: David Moore (dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us)
Date: Wed Jan 10 1996 - 17:26:26 EST


On Wed, 10 Jan 1996, Will Wagers wrote:

> Things seem a little slow on the list, so perhaps I can slip in some
> elementary questions.
>
> 1. What is the reason/justification for not translating "angelos" as
> messenger ?
>
> 2. What is the reason/justification for translating "angel of Satan" as
> "messenger of Satan" (C2 12:7) ?

        The answer to both questions probably has to do with the semantic
range of the term AGGELOS had in NT Greek. It also relates to the way we
express in English different concepts that were covered by that Greek
term. We normally don't use the word "angel" to refer to Satan's
messengers, because, for us, "angel" has the default meaning "(holy)
angel."

        For the Greek speaker of NT times, on the other hand, AGGELOS was
a broad term that could be used in referring to practically any kind of
general messenger, either human or spiritual. New Testament Greek may
also have been influenced by the Hebrew usage of a similar term. (I
think the word is MAL'AK.) The latter has a similar semantic range as
does AGGELOS. The TDNT would be the place to look for references in this
regard.

David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God
dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us Department of Education
http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore



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