Re: definiteness of a genitive

From: akio itou (akioitojapan@root.or.jp)
Date: Mon Jul 01 1996 - 22:31:03 EDT


>>>>At 8:06 AM 96.6.28 -0400, Kevin J Buchs wrote:
>>>>>Frankly I have my Hebrew and Greek confused. I can't remember how the
>>>>>definitness of a genetive phrase works if there is no definite article on
>>>>>the primary noun but there is on the genetive. My example is Mat. 10:36.
>>>>>
>>>>>Is it: "the enemy of the man"
>>>>>Or: "an enemy of the man"
>>>>>
>>>>>Thanks.
>>>>>Kevin Buchs, Vicar [ buchs@juno.com ]
>>>>>St. Paul Lutheran, Blue Earth, Minnesota
>>>>
>>>>In my oipnion you are a bit confused. The 'enmies' (plural!) is anarthrous
>>>>because it is an object of the sentence, not a subject. I suppose that this
>>>>has made it an exception to the so-called Apollonius's Canon. According to
>>>>S. Porter' Idioms of the Gk NT there are about 400 exceptions!
>>>>Yours sincerely,
>>>>Akio Itou
>>>>
>>
>>By the way am I the one who got confused? Have I got your quetion right?
>>>>.
>>>
>>
>>.
>



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