From: Apokrisis1@aol.com
Date: Fri Jul 11 1997 - 17:55:17 EDT
In a message dated 97-07-11 06:14:11 EDT, you write:
<< (1) John tends to use ARXH to refer
to pre-temporal existence (cmp., the Johnannine references in the
section of BAGD with John 1:1 to the other uses; eg., John 8:44),
(2) the contrast between EIMI and GINOMAI in vv 1-14, and (3)
the picture painted of Jesus and the Father PROS one another evidently
pre-time and outside of our Time/Space/History. >>
How do you derive a pre-temporal sense from ARKH in John 8:44?
I commented on the contrast of verbs forms in my previous post.
How do you gather that the relationship between the Father and the Son is
"evidently pre-time"?
Just wondering.
Greg Stafford
University of Wisconsin
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