Re: Mt 24:38 & Lk 17:27

From: F. Holly Mitchell (mitchell@dobson.ozarks.edu)
Date: Fri Dec 12 1997 - 18:15:35 EST


Jonathan,

> >So I'm understanding Matthew to be referring to actions being taken by
> >grooms and fathers of brides, whereas Luke is referring to actions
> >which were taken by grooms and brides (well, passively, anyway).
>
> You seem to be assuming that the subject of GAMEW is always a male; i.e.,
> that the man marries, and the woman is either taken in marriage or given in
> marriage. I don't think this is true. Consider, e.g. 1 Tm 5.14: BOULOMAI
> OUN NEWTERAS GAMEIN: 'so I would prefer that the younger widows marry'.

What an interesting exception to what seems to be a general rule; I'm
glad you called my attention to it. In looking more closely at the text of
1 Tm 5.14, I find that these women are marrying *not* in accordance with
their own will (or QELHMA) necessarily, but because the author of the
letter wills it. I had not realized how forceful a word BOULOMAI is.
(*Why* he does so, is a whole 'nother question, and doesn't belong here!
Though I'd gladly discuss it off-list.)

In the Mt and Lk texts mentioned above, however, I *am* understanding the
subjects of GAMOUNTES and EGAMOUN to be male. Are you suggesting the
opposite, Jonathan? In that case, what do you do with GAMIZONTES and
EGAMIZONTO? Surely we don't have Jesus referring to young men being given
in marriage by their mothers in the days of Noah. <g>

Nontheless, I'm still puzzled regarding the difference in tenses used by
the two writers. Any ideas?

God Bless,
Ginger (assistant to Holly)



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