re: 2 Cor 5:13

From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Sun Jan 18 1998 - 15:02:10 EST


At 01:38 PM 1/18/98 -0600, you wrote:

>But the real question I intended to raised is this: To what extent is the
>aorist indicative taking over the
>functions of the perfect tense? Is it possible that we see an example of
>this here in 2 Cor 5:13?

Most likely not. In fact, I don't think that when we are speaking of NT
grammar it is possible to say that the perfect is being "taken over" by the
aorist. There are more than enough examples of the perfect in the NT to
show that it was alive, well, and thriving when the NT documents were written.
Paul himself uses the perfect numerous times in 2 Cor.

>Perhaps some of the more distinguished members of the B-Greek would be
>willing to respond to this.
>

Though quite undistinguished, I have attempted to answer anyway!!! ":)

>Rich Lindeman
>
>

Jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology

jwest@highland.net



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