Re: Matthew 28:19

From: Scott Schreiber (scottws@stratos.net)
Date: Fri Jan 23 1998 - 13:01:48 EST


-----Original Message-----
From: Paul S. Dixon <dixonps@juno.com>
To: scottws@stratos.net <scottws@stratos.net>
Cc: B-Greek@virginia.edu <B-Greek@virginia.edu>
Date: Friday, January 23, 1998 12:47 PM
Subject: Re: Matthew 28:19

>I don't see any necessary difference between "disciple all nations" and
>"make disciples of all nations." If there is any difference, though, it
>might be that "make disciples" is more emphatically imperatival and views
>more clearly the finished product.

Well, I have never had a problem with it either. That is, untill I came
across a "new" denomination that uses this verse to withhold baptism from
people. They say that Jesus was saying you have to be made into a disciple
first (of course putting all kinds of legalism into their version of
discipleship), then be baptized. I always understood it to say that baptism
and teaching are how disciples are made. Given this conflict, I am trying
to better understand the original text.

Scott Schreiber
scottws@stratos.net



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