From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Wed Jan 28 1998 - 05:45:10 EST
Let's assume that you are reading the NT using a Greek text without
punctuation. And let's assume that you come upon a long but well formed main
clause which contains all the necessary elements and when you come to the end
of this clause you mentally place a period. Now the next word you encounter is
a relative pronoun introducing a relative clause which appears to be modifying
the subject of the previous clause.
Would this scenario cause you confusion? Is there some sort of syntax rule
that states that a relative clause modifying the subject of a main clause must
be embedded within the main clause?
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062Postscript:
I gave an example of this question from Acts 8:24 (codex Bezae) but I think everyone assumed it was a text criticism question which it was not.
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