Re: John 1:1

From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Sat Jan 31 1998 - 16:06:55 EST


At 01:22 PM 1/31/98 -0600, Ron J Macy wrote:

>I can understand that verse 14 speaks of Logos being made flesh and
>dwelling among us refers to Jesus. Part of the question, then is, is
>there some linguistic situation that requires Logos in verse 1 to be
>Jesus as well? If so, what? If not, could (would, should) Logos in verse
>1 be something more encompasing than Jesus, based on the linguistics?

Well, the language never rescues us from needing to interpret things. I'm
sure you know that AUTOU does not mean "him", and can refer to any noun
with masculine gender as well as to a male being. But why should John make
such a big deal about introducing the concept of LOGOS, then
surreptitiously change what it refers to a few verses later without telling
us?

Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com

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