Re: MOICHEUOMENH

From: CWestf5155@aol.com
Date: Thu Jan 29 1998 - 12:19:53 EST


From: CWestf5155@aol.com
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To: anku@celsiustech.com.au
Subject: Re: MOICHEUOMENH
Date: Thu, 29 Jan 1998 12:16:02 EST
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In a message dated 98-01-28 18:11:47 EST, you write:

> [Andrew]
> How can someone be made to *suffer adultery*? Adultery is
> clearly presented as a sin in the Bible (7th commandment) so if a person
> is engaged in adultery then they are sinning against God.
>
> The passive infinitive merely indicates that adulterous
> relationships will naturally follow as a result of a husband divorcing
> his wife.
>
> Matthew 5:32 simply reinforces the law - adultery is not allowed
> and neither is divorce - for any reason! - because adultery, which is
> sin, is the result.
>
> cheers,
> Andrew

If the passive is the usual way to refer to a woman engaging in adultery, its
use means nothing at all. That is, the writer just used common terminology
(there is no subjective choice involved in the selection of voice) and nothing
should be read into it. As many have pointed out, certain mindsets about
gender probably generated the use of the passive voice, but that mindset
should not be projected into this passage.
The context does make it clear that the woman was held to be primarily
culpable (otherwise, as many have pointed out, where is the man?).

Cindy Westfall
PhD Student, Roehampton



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