RE: John 1:1

From: Cooper Greg (CooperG@wsdot.wa.gov)
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 19:34:09 EST


How is "time" defined in Biblical Greek? We use the references of
light and dark and the positions of the earth and sun relative to each
other to delineate segments called "time" (in a 'nutshell'). What does
the Biblical language indicate is used
as reference points for "time" in the spiritual realm?

It seems to me that without some kind of contrast you cannot have what
we call "time."
If the sun simply stayed in the same, identical spatial relationship
with the earth
then we would never, I would think, even conceive of "time."

Is there even a Biblical linguistic answer, or hint, for that matter,
concerning time? What
does it mean that "time shall be no more," as is stated in the Biblical
text?

Respectively,

Gregory Lee Cooper

>----------
>From: GregStffrd@aol.com[SMTP:GregStffrd@aol.com]
>Sent: Thursday, February 12, 1998 3:59 PM
>To: b-greek-digest@virginia.edu
>Subject: Re: John 1:1
>
> On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
> he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
> of all time.
> cheers,
> Andrew>.
>
> No, it would only refer to the beginning of time as counted from a
>_physical_
perspective. It says nothing about "time" as it relates to the spiritual
>realm.
>
> Greg Stafford
> University of Wisconsin
>



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