Re: 1 John 1,1

From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Thu Apr 02 1998 - 19:48:16 EST


At 03:43 PM 4/2/98 -0500, Jim West wrote:
 
>"and indeed, in contrast to our gnostic opponents, we really have looked at
>him in the flesh and our hands really did touch him in the flesh...."
>
>John's use of the perfect then indicates past action with present
>significance while his use of the aorist signifies a historical (and not
>merely spiritual) reality. Thus, these tense changes are extraordinarily
>significant.
 
I'd like to add that the perfect seems to be used with great care in the
gospel and letters of John; elsewhere in the NT, it seems to be less
significant. I agree with Jim's analysis here. If this same passage were in
the writings of Paul or in Revelation, I would put a lot less stock in it.

Jonathan
___________________________________________________________________________

Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com

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