Re: 1 John 3:9

From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Fri May 08 1998 - 12:43:56 EDT


Theodore H. Mann wrote:

> I have a book in which the author translates 1 John 3:9 as, "Whoever
> continues begotten of God does not practice sin." Is there any
> justification at all for this translation? If so, what is it?

Ted, I bet I know the name of that Book!! :-)

PAS / hO / GEGENHMENOS / EK TOU QEOU / hAMARTION / OU / POIEI

The rope-a dope English word substitution of that sentence reads:

"All / who / have been born / out of God / sin / not / are doing..."

 Which adjusts easily to English with "All who have been born out of
God are not 'comitting' sin..."

I have generally found that any translation can be justified to the
satisfaction of the one who translates... :-)

Inferences belong to the apprehender and the text...

Hope this is helpful...

George



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