re: Matt. 10:28 again :)

From: Timo Flink (Timo.Flink@mime.mikkeliamk.fi)
Date: Thu May 28 1998 - 06:37:48 EDT


>For my part, I can't offer any definitive answer on this, chiefly because I
>think there are some unanswered (and perhaps unanswerable)
>questions. For me the chiefest of these concern the compositional
>context of Matthew and particularly of this dominical saying: does an
>Aramaic original really underly it, and if so what implications might be
>drawn from that? On the surface (where it is most difficult to be sure
>about things), it really looks like it's assuming a Hellenistic notion of a
>separable immortal soul and a perishable body; at any rate, it appears to
>me that YUCH here is closer to a Platonic sense than it is to the notion
>of the RUACH breathed into Adam's nostrils in Genesis 2:7 that makes a
>human being a NEFESH.
>
>Carl W. Conrad

I'm sending this private since we're getting out of b-greek ...

The reason for my inquire for the matter was just what you wrote.
Usually most of the christians think "soul" like Greek philosophers did. As
from the theological point of view I disagree strongly with this tendency.

I don't remember the verse, but somewhere in the OT "soul" was
equated with "breath" meaning that sometimes the "soul" really equals
RUACH instead of NEFESH.

As an SDA I hold to a position that we do not have an immortal,
indestructable soul that leaves the body at death. But that's theology. I
simple wanted to know if it's okay to translate the verse like I did. I also
know that one's answer really depends on how one views "soul" and
the theological implications of it..

Thank you for your post and God bless :)
Timo



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