From: Braulio Barillas (parakal@quetzal.net)
Date: Tue Jun 09 1998 - 00:46:11 EDT
At 18:14 8/06/98 -0400, you wrote:
>Friends,
>
>Lk 7:37 contains an interesting adjective, hamartwlos. This adjective
>modifies gunh. Now, according to Moulton, this particular adjective can,
>indeed, take a masculine (looking?) form. What is puzzling is why.
>Brugmann thinks that a few adjectives were originally nouns. In any event,
>Moulton goes on to say that this usage is in accord with the sole or
>predominant usage in earlier Greek.
>
>Does this mean that the adjective 'hamartwlos', originally referred only to
>males, and that as time progressed it was also applied to females? This
>seems to be the implication which Rengstorf offers in TDNT when he says that
>the word "denotes intelectual inferiority and failure, e.g., by reason of
>deficient education" (because only males were educated?). R. takes the word
>in Lk 7:37 as a substantive. But this does still not explain the formation
>of the case ending.
>
>Thanks,
>
>Jim
>
>+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
>Jim West, ThD
>Adjunct Professor of Bible
Dear Jim:
Perhaps say that many adjetives have only two terminations, OS for masc. and
fem. and ON for neuter. Examples:
ENDOXOS and ENDOXON: illustrious
APHTHARTOS and APHTHARTON: incorruptible
BASILEIOS and BASILEION: royal
AIWNIOS and AIWNION: everlasting
AIWNIAN: acc. sing. fem occurs only in 2Thes. 2:16 and Heb. 9:12
Greetings
Braulio
Braulio Barillas
parakal@quetzal.net
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