Re: John 11:35

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Wed Jun 17 1998 - 17:27:30 EDT


At 02:05 PM 6/17/98 -0700, you wrote:
>According to the Johannine Gospel account, EDAKRUSEN hO IHSOUS when he
>arrived at the tomb of Lazarus. The question I have is, WHY?? Why did
>Jesus weep before resurrecting Lazarus? The TEV indicates that he was
>"touched" by the weeping of Martha, Mary, and the Jews present
>consoling them. Others (Murray, Borchert) say that Jesus wept out of
>anger. The interpretation of this verse seems to hinge on John 11:33,
>38:
>
>ENEBRIMHSATO TW PNEUMATI KAI ETARAZEN hEAUTON
>
>PALIN EMBRIMWMENOS.
>
>Thanks,
>
>Edgar Foster
>

I tend to agree with Beasley-Murray here. The context of the pericope is
such that Jesus is rightly angered because of the denseness and unbelief of
his followers. (Almost a Marcn theme, by the way). Thus, he cries out of
frustration because of sorrow (at their hardness and stupidity).

Best,

Jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net

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