Re: John 1:1 EN ARCH

From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Tue Jul 07 1998 - 13:18:27 EDT


Larry Swain wrote:
>
> I agree with everything that came before these paragraphs, but I don't
> think either the ancient Hebrews nor the Hellenistic world had this
> philosophical concept. This is not to say that we understand ARCH as a
> punctiliar beginning pin pointable to some date and hour and minute, but I
> don't think that swinging the other way to an omnitemporal understanding
> is what John or Hellenistic Greeks had in mind.

Most folks do not approach John as I do.

The EGO EIMI usages that argue strongly in its favor, because of their
power and their omnitemporal denotation.

The philosophical implications, of course, are mine.

When one is speaking from the ARCH, everything is present tense...
Because of its non-temporal/omni-temporal character.

Did John have this in mind??....

I think yes...

George

ps ~ I noticed the word 'we' in your 2nd sentence ~ And do not know
its referent... Could you help me out? I took it to mean traditional
exegesis, but then realized my presumptiveness in responding with
'Most folks...'

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George Blaisdell        dalmatia@eburg.com

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