From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Thu Jul 16 1998 - 11:59:18 EDT
David L. Moore wrote:
> >And I would add that partitive vs holistic thinking will as well be
> >determinative... My prejudice here is that I believe the former to be
> >a Latinization of the Greek, and the latter to be Greek.
>
> Can you *show* any unambiguous example of "holistic thinking" in Greek
> syntax that might back up this assertion? Also, since coming across the
> passage in Moulton's grammar about attributive prepositional phrases, I'm
> not so certain either Rom. 1:4 or 1:17 are adverbial; I'm taking a second
> look at this matter. But I don't admit the possibility that they are *both*.
Well, ya know... Ambiguity, you see ~ Is kinda like ~ !!The proof!!
:-) 'Tis a self confessed prejudice, after all ~ And I am not
scholarly enough to provide you with examples 'proving unambiguously'
my point. And I am not sure that such proof is possible, given the
radical difference in approach to understanding.
I have no idea in these two passages which is to be taken how, in
terms of either-or. I don't even care just now, because the grammar
is at issue. [I really am unlearned in GNT!! Trust me on this one!]
And I do understand your inadmittance of the hOLON take on this
construction, and am simply asking WHY?
Why MUST it be either-or?
Thank-you...
George
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