From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Fri Jul 17 1998 - 01:32:34 EDT
David L. Moore wrote:
> >And I do understand your inadmittance of the hOLON take on this
> >construction, and am simply asking WHY?
> >
> >Why MUST it be either-or?
>
> Well, I'll have to say that these are the categories I have available from
> my study of Greek grammar and syntax - and grammars of other languages for
> that matter. I'd be willing to consider the additional categories you
> postulate but would need to see some examples to be able to accept them as
> valid. I think that sometimes intentional ambiguity is a part of the text;
> some would read Jn. 3:3 ff. in this way. But if we read ambiguity where
> none was meant, we risk missing the point of the text we are dealing with.
I'm not really arguing for ambiguity ~ Simply a holistic object of
modification. In English, we might say:
A horse out of horseness horses around.
Now 'out of horseness' modifies what?? The horse?? The horsing
around?? Or does it in fact modify the horse horsing around,
providing a tie between the subjece and the verb that brings them
together causily? And is not our Roman example very much akin?
This is really not all that difficult ~ Really ~ 'Tis just a storm in
a teapot.
George
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George Blaisdell dalmatia@eburg.com
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