From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Sun Nov 08 1998 - 23:04:06 EST
At 10:55 AM 11/8/98 EST, GregStffrd@aol.com wrote:
>I can see you are directing your question to Carl, but I hope neither one of
>you mind if I make a brief comment on this issue. I think it is safe to take
>EK as creating some sort of separation from the group (the "dead") from which
>Christ came, to which he once belonged. EK is not used in Col. 1:15 for there
>is no separation from the group to which belongs; he did not come "from" the
>KTISIS; he is still a part of it, though the "firstborn."
Compare Col 1:18 to Rev 1:
Col 1:18 PRWTOTOKOS EK TWN NEKRWN
Rev 1:5 hO PRWTOTOKOS TWN NEKRWN
If the distinction is really as you say, then the writer of the Revelation
believes Jesus to still belong to the group of dead people, whereas the
writer of Colossians believes he is no longer dead. I think that both
writers believe Jesus to be risen from the dead.
Jonathan
jonathan@texcel.no
Texcel Research
http://www.texcel.no
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