From: JŸrg Buchegger (j.buchegger@datacomm.ch)
Date: Mon Jan 04 1999 - 04:12:54 EST
This is my second question on Rom 12:2:
2. What about the unusual continuing of the PARAKALW+Infinitive phrase (in
V.1) with the Imperatives in V.2? - Is it correct to say, that one would
expect Infinitves in V.2? What would you call this anomaly? A "oratio
variata" (Winer p.509f)?
Thank you for comments on this.
Juerg Buchegger
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