Re: John 5:26

From: John Oaklands (j_m_oaklands@yahoo.com.au)
Date: Sun May 09 1999 - 20:56:12 EDT


Thank you George. You seem to me to be on track and what you wrote is
quite helpful.

John

--- George Blaisdell <maqhth@hotmail.com> wrote:
>
>
> >From: John Oaklands
>
> >Hi
>
> Hello John ~
>
> >How is EDWKEN understood in John 5:26? Does this
> refer to the
> >incarnation as of John 1:4 EN AUTWi ZWH HN or, as
> some have even
> >suggested, to the resurrection? How does EDWKEN
> make sense in the
> >light of John 1:4? I even have trouble with the
> translation
> >*granted*--does any one else?
>
> hWSPER GAR hO PATHR ECEI ZWHN EN hEAUTW
> hOUTWS KAI TWi hUIWi EDWKEN ZWHN ECEIN EN hEAUTW
>
> For just as the Father is having life in Himself
> Thusly even to the Son He gives life in Himself.
>
> I think it does refer to EN AUTWi ZWH HN in 1:4,
> although I have always
> understood 1:4 to be pre or pan incarnational ~ That
> is, a permanent
> attribution of hO LOGOS, who did incarnate.
>
> Here he simply seems to be attributing the giving of
> His life that is in
> Himself to the Father, who is the source of His
> having it in himself.
>
> The HN of 1:4 I have taken to mean 'has always been
> and continues to be and
> will continue to be' ~ At least in terms or our
> experience of time. HN
> places Him 'prior' to ARCH [beginning]. As God's
> Word in the creation, His
> source is God, who "EDWKEN" to Him life.
>
> There are surely ressurrectional implications to all
> this, but this little
> passage does not seem to address them. The rest of
> this section, however,
> clearly does. [5:21, 28-9, etc.]
>
> Am I addressing your question?
>
>
> George Blaisdell
> Roslyn, WA
>
>
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===
John V. Oaklands
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Cardiff NSW 2285
Australia
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Email j_m_oaklands@yahoo.com.au

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