Re: PEIRASMOS - the meaning of the word

From: Steven Cox (scox@Mail.Sparkice.COM.CN)
Date: Thu Jun 17 1999 - 13:17:37 EDT


Hi Dmitry
I can think of someone much better qualified to comment, and who is online
at the moment, but as, by sheer coincidence, I was just talking about this
elsewhere (in the context of hO QEOS EPEIRASE TON ABRAAM) here's my
denarion:

Doesn't the flow of James' argument prove the opposite? - That there is only
one kind of PEIRASMOS even in different aspects. i.e. if the word PEIRASMOS
is really to be taken differently as trials v12 and tempations v13 then why
did James consider the clarification KAKWN in v13 necessary if PEIRASMOS is
in itself evil here?

APEIRASTOS ESTIN KAKWN PEIRAZEI DE AUTOS OUDENA

we tend to read above (thinking in English) as if it requires a second "with
evil" for the meaning to be there, but wouldn't APEIRASTOS ESTIN KAKWN
PEIRAZEI DE AUTOS OUDENA *KAKWN* be rather superfluous?

Regards
Steven
_________________________________________________
Greek Pseudepigrapha Page http://www2.crosswinds.net/~semiazas/
_________________________________________________

-----Original Message-----
From: Dmitriy Reznik <dpreznik@usa.net>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Date: Friday, June 18, 1999 1:01 AM
Subject: PEIRASMOS - the meaning of the word

>Dear friends,
>
>Could you please help me to understand the usage of PEIRASMOS (and
>PEIRAZW)in James? In Ja 1:1-2 and 1:12 it seems to be a positive thing and
>is usually translated as "trial". But in Ja 1:13-14 it becomes something
>bad and is translated as "temptation". How can it be that the same word in
>the same context has different meanings and is translated with different
>words?
>
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