From: Bret A. Hicks (bret@maranatha.net)
Date: Wed Jul 14 1999 - 09:15:03 EDT
As I was studying 2 Corinthians 1:20 this morning, I noticed that Paul
used the construction
DI' AUTOU TO AMHN TW QEW PROS DOXAN DI' HMWN
(THROUGH HIM THE AMEN TO THE GLORY OF GOD {IS SPOKEN} THROUGH US)
What struck me is the repeated use of DIA. Is it unusual to have a
consturction where something is DIA one person or thing and almost
immediately followed by another DIA? Interestingly, the majority text
replaces the first DIA with EN, which certainly would seem to be alittle
smoother to me. However, my UBS4 does not even give EN as a footnote.
Another question relates to the usual translation of the second DIA
(through us) as "by us"? Is this a common meaning for DIA with the
genitive, or is it simply necessary to make it sound smoother in
English, since through Him... trhough us sounds a little rough? DO the
two occurences of DIA have the same basic meaning of "through"?
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
In Christ,
Bret A. Hicks
Pastor, Bay Ridge Christian Church
Annapolis, Md
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