Re: Matthew 21:29-31

From: D. Charles Pyle (DCPyle@linkline.com)
Date: Sun Sep 05 1999 - 02:31:22 EDT


I've been lurking on the B-Greek list for a few days now, and had a question
with respect to translating a certain passage. How would one translate
Matthew 21:29-31 for Arab readers? For the Arab reader (at least those I
know of who seem to have a very fatalistic view of events controlled in all
aspects by Allah), the son who told his father that he would do as
instructed but later did not is seen as being the "good" son rather than the
one who said he would not but afterward did his father's will. It would be
unthinkable to these persons for a son to shame his father by telling him
"no," even if he actually did later go out and do as his father asked. But
the son who told his father "yes" but did not complete the task because it
was not Allah's will that he accomplish the task is seen in a better light.
Would one rather try placing an explanatory footnote explaining the mileau
of Israelite culture in the first century or try to tackle the translation
issue in some way? Thank you in advance for any help you can give on this.
===============================================
D. Charles Pyle
--------------------------
GINWSKETE GAR THN CARIN TOU KURIOU hHMWN
IHSOU CRISTOU, hOTI DI' hUMAS EPTWCEUSEN,
PLOUSIOS WN, hINA hUMEIS TH(i) EKEINOU PTWCEIA(i),
PLOUTHSHTE. (PROS KORINQIOUS B 8.9)
===============================================

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