Re: Re: greek future passive

From: Johann Oaklands (4freiheit665@gmx.de)
Date: Thu Sep 23 1999 - 06:38:25 EDT


Thank you Carl for you excellent reply to my question. However, there is
still something in there that I need clarified, if I might push the question
a little further. Just for the purpose of illustration I'll refer to uses
of KAQARISQHSETAI. For example in the LXX Lev 12:8 reads:
KAI EXILASETAI PERI AUTHS hO hIEREUS KAI KAQARISQHSETAI.

Here it seems that the person atoned for will not start in on a cleansing
process, but is in fact already clean. Is that what KAQARISQHSETAI is
saying? In other words, only before the atonement can it be said that the
cleansing is future, for after the atonement, the cleansing would have been
accomplished.

Similarly in Lev 15:28

KAI EXARIQMHSETAI AUTHi hEPTA hHMERAS KAI META TAUTA KAQARISQHSETAI.

Do we translate "after that she will begin to be clean" or "after that she
will be clean"?

Just one more, this time from Numbers 31:23

PAN PRAGMA hO DIELEUSETAI EN PURI KAI KAQARISQHSETAI.

Is this saying the same as the NRSV "everything that can withstand fire,
shall be passed through fire, and it shall be clean"? I take that
KAQARISQHSETAI to indicate that once the object has been passed through fire it is
already clean rather than that it will begin to become clean.

In other words, is this how the future passive should always function?

I would be most grateful for any help with these. Thank you. John

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