John 8:58 (I am, I have been, I was?)

From: Grant (grant@cajun.net)
Date: Wed Dec 22 1999 - 12:19:50 EST


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<DIV><FONT size=2>The reason I decided to learn Greek (i think there was a topic
a while back about this)&nbsp;is to learn all the legitimate interpretations of
passages such as Philippians 2:6 (very much aware of this scripture now! ) and
others.&nbsp; I would just like to say that B-Greek has helped me understand and
look at scriptures in a way I never did before.&nbsp; I would just like to give
a warm thanks to all who have corresponed with me. I know at time I can be a
little stubborn though.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4>JOhn 8:58 "EIPEN AUTOIS IHSOUS AMHN AMHN LEGW hYMIN PRIN
ABRAAM GENESQAI EGW EIMI"</FONT></DIV>
<DIV>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4>I have read many variations in which some translate as "I am"
while other seem to try to show an age rather than identity such as "I have
been" or "I was."&nbsp;</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4></FONT>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4>&nbsp;From a scrictly grammatical standpoint, is "I have been"
a correct rendering?&nbsp; Which English tense is <U>closer to the Greek
tense</U>: the <U>"I am" tense </U>or the <U>"I have been"
tense</U>?</FONT></DIV>
<DIV>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4>Sincerely,</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT size=4>Grant POlle</FONT></DIV></BODY></HTML>

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