Re: Matthew 5:22---"sanhedrin"

From: Diane Wudel (dwudel@email.unc.edu)
Date: Wed Feb 02 2000 - 19:47:27 EST


<x-charset X-UNKNOWN>This is my first post to B-Greek, so I understand it may be delayed a bit
before reaching the list. Forgive me, then, if the SUNEDRION/Sanhedrin
question has already been thoroughly answered before my 2 cents worth is
posted.

SUNEDRION is used broadly to refer to various councils, advisory bodies
and courts in the Greco-Roman world. In the passion narratives and in
Acts it is also used more specifically for the Jerusalem council before
which Jesus is tried and before which his followers are interrogated. The
Greek term was taken into Hebrew in the Hellenistic period as
"Sanhedrin" and by the time of the Mishnah, the Hebrew word was a
technical term for a supreme Jewish court described in one Mishnah
tractate.

Whether the Jerusalem SUNEDRION was in fact a first-century incarnation of
the Mishnah's Sanhedrin is a topic for debate among NT scholars. But in
passages like Matthew 5:22, most translators will assume the reference is
to some local judicial body -- hence "council," or "court", not
"Sanhedrin" here.

Diane Wudel
University of North Carolina (Chapel Hill)

On Wed, 2 Feb 2000, Grant wrote:

> B-Greek,
>
> While reading Matthew 5:22, I came across the word "SUNEDRIO
> (transliteration ?) " which means "Sanhedrin."
>
> >>>>22 However, I say to YOU that everyone who continues wrathful with his
> brother will be accountable to the court of justice; but whoever addresses
> his brother with an unspeakable word of contempt will be accountable to the
> SUPREME COURT; whereas whoever says, 'You despicable fool!' will be liable
> to the fiery Ge·hen'na.>>>>
>
> Now, I have read variant readings that read "Supreme Court (NWT; NASB; WE;
> etc)" or "council (KJV; RSV)."
>
> First, why isn't Sanhedrin just translated as is? I'm NOT trying to
> raise a translation issue. MY POINT: I'm trying to see if the
> tVnranslators
@chose
> different words based on the meaning that the Greek word can imply. Is it a
> change because of "word preference" or a change because of "interpretive
> reading?"
>
> Is Sanhedrin referring to the actual group of men or religious
> leaders--the Supreme Court, or does Jesus imply something different that the
> Greek word itself suggests? Was Sanhedrin a term specifically for that
> group or does it embrace more in meaning? Essentially, I am asking one
> question, but I wrote more than one to help clarify my "confusion." I hope
> my question is specific and clear.
>
> sincerely
> grant polle
>
>
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>

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