Re: Verb Sequence in NT Greek

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Thu Mar 30 2000 - 17:55:00 EST


on 03/28/00 9:03 PM, Joe A. Friberg wrote:

> Now I have a question: what is the *source* of Mk's (and Jn's) syntax? Is
> it Aramaic, as Nigel Turner _Style_ p.12, and others have suggested?

Joe,

I would not risk making a general statement on this topic, but will point
that A.T. Robertson in his venerable yellow door stop (p. 428 bottom) states
concerning Mk 2:11 EGEIRE ARON:

"This use of AGE is common in the old Greek
 (Gildersleeve, Greek Syntax p. 29)."

I would take this as a cautionary note concerning using Aramaic influence
as an explanation for this particular construction. On the broader topic of
Aramaic syntax in Mark and John and the Apocalypse and elsewhere, I am
somewhat of an agnostic. The more I read on the topic the more agnostic I
become.

Note my use of polysyndeton:

. . . Aramaic syntax in Mark and John and the Apocalypse and elsewhere . . .

Perhaps my syntax has been influenced by reading too much LXX Greek or
W. Faulkner or E. Hemingway or V. Woolf or Ann Morrow Lindbergh or
L. Fernlingetti. Perhaps I just like to use conjunctions because of the
sound it makes when read aloud. Who knows?

Thanks again for your help with this question.

Clay

--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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