Re: Why not modern? The Arabic analogy

From: George Athas (gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au)
Date: Thu Jun 08 2000 - 08:40:49 EDT


Can we determine whether Greek in the first century CE was pronounced in the more archaic
fashion or in a similar way to modern Greek?

Best regards,
GEORGE ATHAS
- University of Sydney
- Southern Cross College
- Anglican Chaplaincy, UNSW
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