[b-greek] Re: law prophesied

From: Mike Sangrey (mike@sojurn.lns.pa.us)
Date: Wed Nov 01 2000 - 09:15:17 EST



Ben Crick <ben.crick@argonet.co.uk> said:
>
> So the author of Matthew means the whole O.T. corpus, right up to and
> including John the Baptist. That would probably include what we call
> the Pseudepigrapha as well (such as the Books of Enoch, etc, apparently
> cited in 2 Peter and Jude).

You know, I hadn't looked at it like this. The question immediately
popped into my mind of whether John potentially wrote something. I
wonder?? Should

    PANTES GAR hOI PROFHTAI KAI hO NOMOS hEWS IWANNOU EPROFHTEUSAN:

also refer to the oral tradition? The plural verb would then refer to the
plurality of messages, not writings or authors. Interesting.

Thanks Ben; this is thought provoking.
--
Mike Sangrey
mike@sojurn.lns.pa.us
Landisburg, Pa.
               It's OK to think differently, just think together.
               Sooner or later that will bring out our faults;
               then we can deal with them...together.



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