[b-greek] Re: hINA TI + ind.? (LXX, Ps. 41:6, 10)

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Mon Dec 11 2000 - 09:10:55 EST


At 8:56 AM -0500 12/11/00, Rodney J. Decker wrote:
>LEH, Lex./LXX, 1:214-15 lists hINA TI + ind. as indicating "to what end?
>why?" I don't find such a listing in BAGD, s.v. hINA (2d ed.--still waiting
>for BDAG to arrive!). Perhaps I missed it. Is this a common expression? I
>don't remember it in NT (and don't have my copy of Accordance accessible at
>the moment)--but that may just be my poor memory! The meaning is obvious
>enough from the context. Any thoughts?

It's in BAGD as a single word hINATI; I knew we'd discussed it a few years
back, and so wonderful is the Eudora search engine that it found it in my
own archives immediately:

>Date: Fri, 12 Jan 1996 10:11:18 -0600
>To: b-greek@virginia.edu
>From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
>Subject: hINATI' in Didache 5
>
>This may bore others to death, but it's the sort of tidbit of linguistic
>history that I personally find fascinating.
>
>As a follow-up to yesterday's discussion of some problems Ken Litwak
>brought up in the Greek text of the Didache, I have done some further
>checking on the usage of the relatively rare hINATI' or hINA TI' as it
>appears in verse 5, cited by Ken as (with revised transliteration,
>hopefully for the sake of greater clarity):
>
>OUAI TWi LAMBONONTI. EI MEN GAR XREIAN EXWN LAMBANEI TIS, AQWOS ESTAI. hO
>DE MH XREIAN EXWN DWSEI DIKAN, hINA TI' ELABE KAI EIs TI'?
>
>I was able to check LSJ9 at the Perseus web site last night (great resource
>for those using Netscape with either Mac or Windows and having either
>SuperGreek or SMK Greek fonts that they can put as "fixed-width font"
>option) and found listed as a relatively rare secondary usage:
>
>c. hIna TI' (sc.GENHTAI?); to what end? either abs. or as a question,
>Aristoph. Eccl. 719; or with a Verb following, IDEM = Aristoph. Peace 409,
>cf. Plat. Apol. 26d, etc.; hINA DE TI' ; Aristoph. Cl. 1192.
>
>I then found the following in BAGD:
>
>BAGD: hINATI' (often written separately; for hINA TI' GENHTAI?' "in order
>that what might happen?" Bld-D#1,3; W-S.#5, 7e; Rob. 739) why, for what
>reason?
>NT examples: Mt 9:4; 27:46 (Ps 21:2); Lk 13:7; Acts 74:25 (Ps 2:1)); 7:26;
>1 Cor 10:29; 1 Cl 4:4 (Gen. 4:6); 35:7 (Ps 49:16); 46:5, 7; B 3:1 (Is
>58.4). W. EIS TI' why and for what? D 1:5. Bl-D.#299, 4. Moulton &
>Milligan. s.v. hINA.
>
>Most interesting in particular was the last listing in LSJ9--a citation
>from the lexicographer Hesychius, who wrote at the turn of the millennia.
>He glossed, it appears, hINA TI' with DIA TI' and ES TI'. It seems very
>like (to me, at least) that any implicit "GENHTAI" functioning as a
>subjunctive of purpose with the subject TI' has long since receded from the
>consciousness of the user of the language and that hINA has in fact become
>the equivalent in this phrase of a preposition used with TI' understood as
>a neuter accusative. The unified spelling in hINATI' (comparable to the
>very common unified DIATI' and DIOTI for "why?" and "because ...") suggests
>the same conclusion.

--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
cwconrad@ioa.com
http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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