[b-greek] Re: John 21:17 - definite article a marker for distinction between AGAPE and PHILEO?

From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@chorus.net)
Date: Sun Dec 31 2000 - 17:36:19 EST


on 12/30/00 9:09 PM, Steve Godfrey at sgodfrey@irk.ru wrote:

> And yet, a problem remains. Why the article in Jesus’ third question?
> Neither Temple, Morris, nor Carson note whether the article TO before
> TRITON has a special role to play. This article only appears in the third
> question.

Yes, it only appears in the third question, but this is probably a matter of
rhetorical style rather than the author drawing a major distinction between
the adverbial accusative with or without the article (TO TRITON as compared
to DEUTERON). Note that the first question doesn't have an adverbial
accusative (PRWTON) at all to modify the verb LEGEI. So if there is any
significance to the article in the third question (and answer) it is that it
marks this question as the culminating or climactic question in the
exchange. Note the pattern of development: LEGEI ... LEGEI PALIN DEUTERON
... LEGEI TO TRITON. The first LEGEI has no adverbial modifier, the second
has PALIN DEUTERON, and the third has TO TRITON. There seems to be
development toward a culmination or climax, rather than a distinction of
verbs.

> Based on BDF, this usage of the article is to mark a quotation, or to mark the
> beginning of a phrase for further consideration. BDF cites Matt. 19:18 as an
> example(1):
>
> NIV Matthew 19:18 "Which ones?" the man inquired. Jesus
> replied TO, "'Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do
> not steal, do not give false testimony,

Unlike Mt 19.18 (and other instances that can be found in the GNT), TO does
not mark a quotation in Jn 21:17. Rather, it modifies the adverbial
accusative TRITON (cf. Mk 14.41). TO TRITON, in turn, is not part of the
quotation but modifies LEGEI which, in turn, introduces the quote.

> John may be using the article in this third question to draw attention to
> the change in verbs.

Neither DEUTERON nor TO TRITON modifies the verbs in question. Rather, they
modify the verb LEGEI in their respective clauses.

> The article was not used in the previous two quotations of this section,
> so it is unlikely that its only function in the third quotation is merely
> to mark the start of the quotation. This is of course to build a case
> merely on the presence of an article, which might seem slim grounds. This
> theory would carry more weight if there was corroborating evidence for a
> distinction between ‘phileo’ and ‘agapaw’ elsewhere in John’s writings.

In fact, the article is not used in the third quotation and so does not
function in the third quotation, as I stated above. And far be it from me to
rekindle the debate on B-Greek about AGAPAW vs. FILEW! (And I hope it is far
from everyone else as well!)

Steve Lo Vullo,
Madison, WI


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