[b-greek] re: Pronunciation

From: WFWarren@aol.com
Date: Fri Jan 19 2001 - 08:04:39 EST



In a message dated 1/18/01 5:25:28 PM, Denny Diehl writes:

>In a discussion of a textual variant at Lk 22:40,
>it is suggested that the reason for having the
>variation of: PROSEUCESQAI and PROSEUCESQE
>is that the diphthong AI and the vowel E are
>pronounced the same. Really? I was under
>the impression that
>
>AI had a long I sound, and
>E had a short E sound.
>
>Which is correct?

I've seen this confusion quite often in NT mss. Without looking up more
examples, one in Sinaiticus in John 1, perhaps verse 12 if memory serves
correctly, comes to mind, with Sinaiticus have the E rather than AI. I seem
to recall that we've also found a few other mss. with this same variant,
including one we recently collated here at he CNTTS. This change is
represented even in some minuscule mss. Of course, we can't determine if
they are copying an earlier vowel confusion or creating one without detailed
analysis of the specific instance.


paz,

Bill Warren
Director of the Center for New Testament Textual Studies
Landrum P. Leavell, II, Professor of New Testament and Greek
New Orleans Baptist Theological Seminary
http:\\www.nobts.edu\cntts

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