[b-greek] RE: the predicate position of PAS

From: Moon-Ryul Jung (moon@saint.soongsil.ac.kr)
Date: Sun Jan 21 2001 - 00:17:04 EST


Carl,
thanks for the illuminating comments on my questions. My comments to your
comments are posed as a comment to Iver's post. But I would like to make
some specific comments here.

[Carl]
> (b) I really don't think that it's sufficient to call PANTES in either
> configuration (PANTES hOI MAQHTAI or hOI MAQHTAI PANTES) 'appositional." To
> me at least it's always seemed rather that the "attributive" configuration
> does that: we can say that hO AGAQOS ANHR is 'more or less' identical in
> meaning with hO ANHR hO AGAQOS, but that there's a rhetorical difference:
> I'd say that in the phrase hO ANHR hO AGAQOS the group hO AGAQOS functions
> as a substantive in apposition to the noun hO ANHR, i.e. the phrase would
> be equivalent to English "the man, i.e. the good one." Now we might want to
> say that hOI MAQHTAI PANTES works the same way and is roughly equivalent to
> "the disciples, i.e. ALL of them"--and if so, then yes, we'd have to say
> PANTES is 'appositional' to hOI MAQHTAI. BUT, even if that's so, it still
> leaves unexplained why a word like PANTES or hOUTOI stands outside of the
> article-noun configuration.

[Moon]
It seems that PANTES or hOUTOI satnds outside of the article-noun
 phrase NP because PANTES or hOUTOI is appositional to NP.
 In the case of AGAQOS, both hO ANHR hO AGAQOS and hO AGAQOS ANHR are
possible. But in the case when PAS refers to individuals of the group,
that is, when it is used as a collective pronoun, it should be odd
to make it an attribute or property of the modified entity.
But combining PAS with the modified noun in an appositional relationship
does not create such an oddity.

Moon
Moon-Ryul Jung
Associate Professor
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea
 

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