[b-greek] RE: John 20:28 and Smart's rule.

From: Alan B. Thomas (a_b_thomas@yahoo.com)
Date: Fri Feb 02 2001 - 09:55:14 EST


Dan Parker:

Regarding this...

Single possessive pronoun - both substantives arthrous
(12)
(Mk 6:21; 10:7,19; 16:7; Lk 2:23; 14:26; 18:20;
Jn 11:5; Eph 6:2; Ac 7:14; 10:24; Re 11:18)


This would be the closest category, of all those you
listed, that might parallel the John 20 passage.
However not one of these parallel it (Is Lk 2:23 a
typo??). I think you would want to dismiss all plurals
and those personal descriptions that are not lexically
related (as Iver said, mother and father are different
on a lexical basis alone, regardless of there
grammatical construct).

If it were not for the plural, I would not dispute
Acts 10:24 as a possible reference to the same group.
But again, plurals are also dismissed from other
rules, such as Granville's.

Also, I would seek to find oodles of extra-biblical
examples before presenting a grammatical construct as
a rule. I would be interested in seeing your results
after you do this. If it is to be taken seriously, be
sure that the parallels are EXACTLY as the John 20
passage... I think it critical to find singular
personal descriptions. (Otherwise, you might be pigeon
holed into a JW-type of scholarship where, for
example, ONLY JW's accept their interpretation of John
1.)


=====
Sincerely,

Alan B. Thomas

"Actually, there was no final "s" on "toward," but
now it's acceptable. Languages just change."

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