From: Ken Smith (kens@180solutions.com)
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 12:39:18 EST
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<P><FONT SIZE=2>I can't speak to Coptic, but Latin doesn't have a definite article. Consequently, the Vulgate reads:</FONT>
</P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2>in principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum.</FONT>
</P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2>"Deus" is capitalized in the version I have, but I don't know if that reflects the earliest manuscripts (or even what the significance of a capitalized "Deus" would have been); or whether that reflects more on Jerome's grammatical or theological sensibilities.</FONT></P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2>Ken Smith</FONT>
</P>
<P><FONT SIZE=2>> -----Original Message-----</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> From: Paul, Doug [<A HREF="mailto:Doug.Paul@GD-CS.COM">mailto:Doug.Paul@GD-CS.COM</A>] </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> Sent: Thursday, March 01, 2001 9:09 AM</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> To: Biblical Greek</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> Subject: [b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> I'm curious to know how old are the oldest translations (not </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> into English but into Latin, Coptic, etc.) of John 1 and how </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> do they render it? Did they supply an article? I know </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> nothing of these other ancient languages maybe they don't </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> have indefinite articles either.</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> Doug</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> ______________________________________________</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> Doug Paul (781) 455-4216</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> doug.paul@GD-CS.com ______________________________________________</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> </FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> ---</FONT>
<BR><FONT SIZE=2>> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek</FONT>
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