[b-greek] Re: EGW EIMI in Isaiah 47:8,10

From: Brian (brian@discoveryhills.org)
Date: Wed Mar 14 2001 - 17:09:40 EST

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On 3/12/01 10:39 AM, "Dan Parker" <stoixein@sdf.lonestar.org> wrote: 
 
>> that might have a meaning for Semitic Babylonians. And I'm well aware that 
>> Exodus 3:14 doesn't say in the LXX simply EGW EIMI. So: I don't know or 
>> claim any assurance that Exodus 3:14 is alluded to here, but I certainly 
>> think there's a possibility of it. 
>> 
>> Carl W. Conrad (retired) 
> 
> Carl, 
> I am curious as to why you think there is a possibility.  It it based 
> on either Hebrew or Greek grammar? 
> 
> Regards, 
> Dan Parker 
> 
> Greetings, 
     
It has been a long time since I have had time to join the friendly fray. 
 
I am curious, why you may think that the Greek or Hebrew grammar precludes the author of this portion of Isaiah from poetically placing in the mouth of Babylon a "variation of a significant motif from Torah", as happens frequently in the book of Isaiah? 
 
It seems to me that such decisions do move beyond mere grammatical/syntactical precision, and always involve hermeneutics. Therefore, on the basis of the Greek alone, both your positions are plausible and inconclusive. 
 
This is one of my disappointments with this forum, on occasion.  We pretend that hermeneutics won’t enter our discussion, but we all bring our own with us wherever we go.  It seems to me when we talk about plausible or legitimate semantics of the Greek, we are being as objective and neutral as possible in this situation. I may side with Conrad on this text, but I know it is because of a theologically informed hermeneutic.  Therefore, scholarly humility demands of me that I recognize your point as equally grammatically legitimate. 
 
Am I insane here, or does what I suggest ring of balance, and potential for learning and dialogue? 
 
 
Just a student thinking out loud, 
Brian P. Swedburg 
> 
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